Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option D
Volume of water to add (mL) = total volume of formula on hand (mL) – total volume of formula on hand (mL)
Diluted strength
mL water = (200mL / ¾) – 200mL = (200mL x 4) / (1x3) – 200mL = 267mL – 200mL = 66.6666667 = 67mL
The Correct Answer is Option C
Change 1 g to milligrams, knowing that 1000 mg =1 g.
Also, when converting from grams to milligrams (larger to smaller), move the decimal point three places to the right: 1 g = 1000 mg.
Next, use the formula for calculating the correct dose.
Formula: Desired / Available x Tablet = 1000 mg / 500 mg = 2 tablets
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Autograft
B. Isograft
C. Allograft
D. Xenograft
Xenografts are taken from animal sources. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they originate from human donors.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Allow the manipulation because it will allow the client a sense of control
B. Appeal to the client’s sense of reason to maintain a therapeutic milieu
C. Realize that the client will not need to manipulate after a sense of trust is established
D. Recognize that the client’s anxiety will increase when manipulations are unsuccessful
The client with a personality disorder will experience increasing anxiety as manipulative behaviors fail. The staff should approach the client professionally, rather than friendly, and should set firm limits on the client’s behavior; therefore, Answers A, B, and C are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Take at bedtime
B. Take the medication with juice
C. Report changes in appetite
D. Avoid sunshine while taking the medication
Lugol’s solution is a soluble solution of potassium iodine and should be given with juice because it is bitter to taste. In answer A the medication can be taken at another time, so it is incorrect. Reporting changes in appetite is unnecessary, so answer C is incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because it is also unnecessary.
The Correct Answer is Option A
Total Volume / Time x Drip Factor = 1000 mL / 24 hours x 15drops/mL = 625 drops/hour
625drops/hour x 1hour/60minutes = 10.4166667 = 10 drops/minute (rounded off to a whole number)
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypernatremia
The client who is taking lithium needs an adequate intake of sodium and fluid to prevent the development of lithium toxicity. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Excitability
B. Tremors
C. Heart rate 150
D. Nausea
Adverse effects of epinephrine include hypertension and tachycardia. Answers A, B, and D are expected side effects of racemic epinephrine.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Instruct the aggressive patient to help you with ambulating the bedridden patient
B. Instruct the ambulant patient to assist the 78-year-old in the evacuation process while you seek help in evacuating the bedridden patient
C. Call the switchboard for help in the evacuation
D. Tell everyone the building is on fire and that all take the fire exit
Ambulant patients can assist semi ambulant patients in case of emergency. Take the full dependent and aggressive patients last. There is no point in asking the switchboard as the alarm has been activated. The fire warden is in charge of instructing all people in the building, no the nurse.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Lub-dub sounds
B. Scratchy, leathery heart noise
C. A blowing or swooshing noise
D. Abrupt, high-pitched snapping noise
A heart murmur is an abnormal heart sound and is described as a faint or loud blowing, swooshing sound with a high, medium, or low pitch. Lub-dub sounds are normal and represent the S1 (first) heart sound and S2 (second) heart sound, respectively. A pericardial friction rub is described as a scratchy, leathery heart sound. A click is described as an abrupt, high-pitched snapping sound.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Administering a local anesthetic
B. Checking for an allergic response
C. Administering an anxiolytic
D. Withholding fluids for 6–8 hours
The nurse should perform the skin or eye test before administering antivenin. Answers A and D are unnecessary and therefore incorrect. Answer C would help calm the client but is not a priority before giving the antivenin, making it incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. CSF protein elevation with a normal cell count
B. WBC count of 2800 mm
C. Abnormal liver function test
D. Abnormal electromyographic (EMG) studies
This is the most definitive diagnostic result. The client would experience an elevated white blood cell count, which makes Answer B incorrect. Answers C and D can occur with many diagnoses, so they are not specific for Guillain-Barrè and are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. An involuntary rhythmic, rapid, twitching of the eyeballs
B. A dorsiflexion of the great toe with fanning of the other toes
C. A significant sway when the client stands erect with feet together, arms at the side, and the eyes closed
D. A lack of normal sense of position when the client is unable to return extended fingers to a point of reference
In Romberg’s test, the client is asked to stand with the feet together and the arms at the sides, and to close the eyes and hold the position; normally the client can maintain posture and balance. A positive Romberg’s sign is a vestibular neurological sign that is found when a client exhibits a loss of balance when closing the eyes. This may occur with cerebellar ataxia, loss of proprioception, and loss of vestibular function. A lack of a normal sense of position coupled with an inability to return extended fingers to a point of reference is a finding that indicates a problem with coordination. A positive gaze nystagmus evaluation results in an involuntary rhythmic, rapid twitching of the eyeballs. A positive Babinski’s test results in dorsiflexion of the great toe with fanning of the other toes; if this occurs in anyone older than 2 years it indicates the presence of central nervous system disease.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Anorexia
B. Difficulty swallowing
C. Hirsutism
D. Hot flashes
Hirsutism is facial hair. This is associated with hypersecretion of cortisol. Answers A, B, and D are not associated with Cushing’s disease.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. After a shower or bath
B. While standing to void
C. After having a bowel movement
D. While lying in bed before arising
The nurse needs to teach the client how to perform a TSE. The nurse should instruct the client to perform the exam on the same day each month. The nurse should also instruct the client that the best time to perform a TSE is after a shower or bath when the hands are warm and soapy and the scrotum is warm. Palpation is easier and the client will be better able to identify any abnormalities. The client would stand to perform the exam, but it would be difficult to perform the exam while voiding. Having a bowel movement is unrelated to performing a TSE.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Amenorrhea
B. Headache
C. Blurred vision
D. Weight loss
Prolactinoma tumors are tumors arising from hyperplasia of the pituitary gland that are prolactin hormone–based. Amenorrhea and anovulation are associated with prolactinomas because the pituitary gland assists with stimulation of the ovaries and ovulation, so answer A is correct. Because the pituitary is located in the center of the skull, adjacent to the brain, answers B and C are associated with increased intracranial pressure. Answer D is incorrect because weight gain can occur, not weight loss.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Amevive (alefacept)
B. Folex (methotrexate)
C. Famvir (famciclovir)
D. Raptiva (efalizumab)
Famvir (famciclovir), an antiviral medication, is used to shorten the outbreak of herpes zoster. Amevive, Folex, and Raptiva are used in the treatment of the client with psoriasis; therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. The facility fails to provide literature in both Spanish and English.
B. The narcotic count has been incorrect on the unit for the past three days.
C. The client fails to receive an itemized account of his bills and services received during his hospital stay.
D. The nursing assistant assigned to the client with hepatitis fails to feed the client and give him a bath.
The accreditation committee of hospitals will probably be interested in the problems in answers A and C, so they are incorrect. The failure of the nursing assistant to assist the client with hepatitis should be reported to the charge nurse. If the behavior continues, termination can result, but it doesn’t need to be reported to the board, so answer 4 is incorrect. Option B is a reportable case to the board as this indicates malpractice to the nurses who have not reported a miscounted drug. This can also lead to an investigation as to why the count is incorrect. E.g, underdosing or overdosing a patient; a nurse deliberately stealing controlled medications.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Placing the client in the prone position
B. Starting an IV with an 18-gauge needle
C. Obtaining a lipid profile
D. Assessing that the client empties the bladder
The bladder should be empty for a paracentesis procedure to prevent incidental puncturing. Answer A is incorrect because the client sits upright for the procedure and prone places the client on the abdomen. Answers B and C are not necessary interventions for a paracentesis, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Five minutes
B. Thirty minutes
C. Ninety minutes
D. Four hours
NPH insulin onset is 90–120 minutes. Answer A is incorrect because Novalog insulin onset is 5–10 minutes. B is incorrect because regular insulin onset is 15–30 minutes. D is incorrect and is not associated with the onset of any insulin.
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