Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Waterpik
B. Wire cutter
C. Humidifier
D. Oral rinse
Wire cutters must be at the bedside at all times to decrease the risk of aspiration with vomiting. Answers A and D are usually used in the care of clients with a fractured mandible, but are not as essential as the wire cutters, so they are incorrect. The answer in C is not a usual piece of equipment for clients with fractured mandibles, so it is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Insulin
B. Inderal (propanolol)
C. Lasix (furosemide)
D. Valium (diazepam)
Lasix is a non–potassium-sparing diuretic. This drug can potentiate fluid volume deficit. Answer A is incorrect because insulin will force fluid back into the cell and will not increase fluid volume deficit. Answer B is incorrect because Inderal (propanolol) is a beta-blocker used for the treatment of hypertension and cardiac disease. Inderal does not potentiate diuresis. Answer D is incorrect because Valium (diazepam) is a phenothiazine used as an anti-anxiety medication. This drug does not potentiate fluid volume deficit.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Dermatophytes that cause fungal infections are spread only by human-to-human contact.
B. Infection depends on inoculation and maintenance of the organism in the outer layers of the skin.
C. Treatment of fungal infections continues only until lesions have disappeared.
D. Systemic fungal infections are best treated with antibacterial medications.
Infection occurs when dermatophytes come in contact with a susceptible host that allows inoculation and maintenance in the outer layers of the skin. Answer A is incorrect because dermatophytes are spread by contact with contaminated soil, animals, or humans. Answer C is incorrect because therapy usually continues for one to two weeks after clearing in order to prevent recurrence. Answer D is incorrect because systemic fungal infections are treated with antifungal medications such as Nizoral (ketoconozole), not antibacterial medications.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Ambu bag
B. IV controller
C. Bit drill
D. Torque screwdriver
This equipment is necessary in case the pins become loose. The family should also be instructed in this before discharge for home care. The answers in A, B, and C are not necessary are appropriate due to a halo vest application.
The Correct Answer is True
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. AV node
B. Purkinje fibers
C. SA node
D. Bundle of His
The pacemaker of the heart is the SA node. The impulse moves from the SA node to the AV node on to the right and left bundle branches and finally to the Purkinje fibers. This makes answers A, B, and D incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Clear liquids the day before the test
B. Nothing by mouth the night before the test
C. High-fat meal two hours before the test
D. Asking the client to bring a sputum sample with her for analysis
The only preparation for H. pylori urea breath test is NPO after midnight. In this test, the client drinks a carbon-enriched urea liquid and then CO2 is measured for H. pylori. Answers A, C, and D are not part of the preparation for an H. pylori urea breath test, so they are incorrect options.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Ribavirin
B. Respigam
C. Sandimmune
D. Synagis
The only effective treatment of bronchiolitis (respiratory synctial virus) is ribavirin. Answers B and D are incorrect because they are used prophylactically, not as a treatment for bronchiolitis. Sandimmune, an immunosuppressive drug, is not used for treating bronchiolitis; therefore, Answer C is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
Volume of water to add (mL) = total volume of formula on hand (mL) – total volume of formula on hand (mL)
Diluted strength
mL water = (200mL / ¾) – 200mL = (200mL x 4) / (1x3) – 200mL = 267mL – 200mL = 66.6666667 = 67mL
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Hyperacute graft rejection is due to chronic inflammation and scaring.
B. Hyperacute graft rejection is a cellular response that occurs 1–3 weeks after transplantation.
C. Hyperacute graft rejection is more likely in clients who have received multiple blood transfusions.
D. Hyperacute graft rejection is managed by use of immunosuppressive medications.
Hyperacute graft rejection is more likely to occur in clients who receive a transplant from a donor with an ABO type different from their own, in those with a history of multiple blood transfusions, those with multiple pregnancies, or those with a previous transplant. Answers A and D are incorrect because they describe chronic graft rejection. Answer B describes acute graft rejection; therefore, it is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. A schizophrenic client having visual and auditory hallucinations and the client with ulcerative colitis
B. The client who is six months pregnant with abdominal pain and the client with facial lacerations and a broken arm
C. A child whose pupils are fixed and dilated and his parents and a client with a frontal head injury
D. The client who arrives with a large puncture wound to the abdomen and the client with chest pain
Out of all these clients, it is best to hold the pregnant client and the client with a broken arm and facial lacerations in the same room. The other clients need to be placed in separate rooms, so answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Creatinine
B. Cortisol levels
C. Blood glucose
D. Liver profile
Terbutaline (Brethine) is a bronchodilator that can also relax smooth muscles. Brethine can cause elevations in blood glucose levels so the client should have blood glucose levels checked prior to beginning treatment with Brethine. Answers A, B, and D are not laboratory studies that are required prior to beginning Brethine.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Return to the clinic in six weeks for a urinalysis
B. Avoid exercise for at least six weeks
C. Do not become pregnant for at least 12 months
D. Return to the clinic in six months for liver enzyme studies
The client that has experienced a hydatidiform mole should avoid becoming pregnant again for one year because chorionic carcinoma is associated with a hydatidiform mole. If the client does become pregnant and there are cells for chorionic carcinoma, the hormonal stimulation can cause rapid cell proliferation and growth of the cancer. Answer A is incorrect because a urinalysis in six weeks is not necessary. Answer B is incorrect because exercise is not contraindicated after a hydatidiform mole. Answer D is incorrect because checking liver enzymes in six months is not necessary after a hydatidiform mole.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Gemcitabine (Gemzar)
B. Gefitinib (Iressa)
C. Cabergoline (Dostinex)
D. Ganciclovir (Cytovene)
Dostinex is used to shrink the prolactin-based tumor. Answers A and B are antineoplastic drugs. Answer D is an antiviral medication.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Aplastic
B. Vaso-occlusive
C. Splenic sequestration
D. Erythropoiesis
Erythropoiesis is the formation of RBCs not related to sickle cell crisis. The answers in A, B, and C are types of sickle cell anemia crises, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. The RN with 2 weeks experience in postpartum
B. The RN with 3 years experience in labor and delivery
C. The RN with 10 years experience in surgery
D. The RN with 1 year experience in the neonatal intensive care unit
The nurse in answer B has the most experience in knowing the possible complications involved with preeclampsia. The nurse in answer A is a new nurse to this unit, so the answer is incorrect. The nurse in answer C has no experience with the postpartum client, so the answer is incorrect. The nurse in answer D also has no experience with postpartum clients, so the answer is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Nitroprusside (Nipride)
B. Naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan)
C. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
The postoperative period, narcotics are given. Narcan is the antidote to narcotics, so answer B is correct. Nipride is utilized to lower blood pressure, so answer A is incorrect. Romazicon is the antidote for the benzodiazepines, so answer C is incorrect. Benadryl is an antihistamine, so answer D is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is True
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Assess for allergy to iodine
B. Check pulses proximal to the site
C. Assess the urinary output
D. Check to ensure that the client has a consent form signed
The dye used in the procedure can cause a decrease in renal function. The client’s renal function should be assessed and changes reported to the doctor immediately. Answer A is incorrect because the client’s allergies should be checked prior to the procedure, not after the procedure. The femoral artery is commonly used as the site for a catheterization. Answer B is incorrect because the pulses should be checked distal to the site. Answer D is incorrect because the permit should be signed prior to the procedure.
The Correct Answer is Option A
The child with conduct disorder and the adult with antisocial personality disorder are characterized by lack of guilt or remorse for wrongdoings. Answer B is incorrect because both can have a higher than average IQ. Answer C is incorrect because both have a history of parental neglect or inconsistent parenting. Answer D is incorrect because both lack close friendships.
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