Demo Quiz
Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Severe headache
B. Slight nausea
C. Decreased urination
D. Itching
A severe headache can indicate impending seizure activity. Slight nausea is expected when beginning the therapy, so answer B is incorrect. A client with renal failure already has itching and decreased urination, so answers C and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Excitability
B. Tremors
C. Heart rate 150
D. Nausea
Adverse effects of epinephrine include hypertension and tachycardia. Answers A, B, and D are expected side effects of racemic epinephrine.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Hiccups
B. Dysphagia
C. Fever
D. Bradycardia
Other clinical manifestations include pain, nausea, vomiting, rebound tenderness upon palpation, flatulence, and indigestion. Answers A, B, and D are not associated with cholecystitis, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Share hats and caps
B. Wear training pants
C. Engage in imitative play
D. Have hand-to-mouth contact
Enterobiasis is most common in young children because of frequent hand-to-mouth contact. Answer A is incorrect because sharing hats and caps contributes to the spread of pediculosis capitis. Wearing training pants and playing with imitative toys is not associated with enterobiasis; therefore, Answers B and C are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Notify the physician
B. Remove the weight to release the pressure on the pin
C. Reposition the client to the supine position
D. Try to remove the pin for examination
The nurse should notify the physician so that the pin can be repaired. Answers B and D are actions that can have negative results on the bone healing process, so they are incorrect. Answer C will not help, so it is wrong.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Kernig’s
B. Chadwick
C. McBurney’s
D. Chvostek’s
The test for Chvostek’s sign is performed by tapping the facial nerve (C7) and the trigeminal nerve (C5) and observing for grimacing. Answer A is incorrect because Kernig’s sign is nuchal (neck) rigidity associated with meningitis. Answer B is incorrect because Chadwick’s sign is a bluish vagina associated with hormonal changes. Answer C is incorrect because McBurney’s sign is rebound tenderness associated with appendicitis.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. 3-4 days
B. 5-9 days
C. 10-14 days
D. 2-3 weeks
The incubation period (the period of time from exposure to the onset of the first symptoms) is 10 to 14 days. The first symptoms of smallpox infection include an abrupt onset of chills, high fever, headache, backache, severe malaise, vomiting, possible delirium, stupor and coma
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Webbed neckWebbed neck
B. High arched palate
C. Scaphoid abdomen
D. Low-set ears
Structural anomalies in the infant with polycystic kidney disease include low-set ears, pointed nose, and small chin. Answers A, B, and C are not associated with polycystic kidney disease; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Telling the child how important it is to drink fluids
B. Telling the child how important it is to drink fluids
C. Providing soup on the lunch and dinner meals
D. Offering flavored ice pops or iced Slurpees
A child will likely accept the fluids in this answer better than the others listed. The child is too young to understand the statement in answer A, so it is inappropriate. Answers B and C are good sources of fluids but would not be best or acceptable for a 3-year-old, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. AV node
B. Purkinje fibers
C. SA node
D. Bundle of His
The pacemaker of the heart is the SA node. The impulse moves from the SA node to the AV node on to the right and left bundle branches and finally to the Purkinje fibers. This makes answers A, B, and D incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Acetylcysteine
B. Deferoxamine
C. Calcium disodium acetate
D. British anti-lewisite
Deferoxamine is the antidote for iron poisoning. Answer A is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose, making it wrong. Answers C and D are antidotes for lead poisoning, so they are wrong.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Culture
B. VDRL
C. RPR
D. FTA-ABS
The fluorescent treponemal antibody test (FTA-ABS) is most diagnostic for syphilis. Answer A is incorrect because a culture of the discharge is used to diagnose gonorrhea, not syphilis. Answers B and C are incorrect because they are screening tests and are not as diagnostic as the FTA-ABS is.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Frontal lobe
B. Occipital lobe
C. Temporal lobe
D. Parietal lobe
Partial seizures usually originate in the temporal lobe, making Answers A, B, and D incorrect because partial seizures do not usually occur in the other lobes.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. The client receiving radium linear accelerator radiation therapy for cancer
B. The client with a radium implant for vaginal cancer
C. The client who has just been administered radioactive isotopes for cancer
D. The client who returned from placement of iridium seeds for prostate cancer
The pregnant nurse should not be assigned to any client with radioactivity present. The client receiving linear accelerator therapy travels to the radium department for therapy, and the radiation stays in the department. Thus, the client is not radioactive. The client in answer B poses a risk to the pregnant client, so answer B is incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because the client is radioactive in very small doses. For approximately 72 hours, the client should dispose of urine and feces in special containers and use plastic spoons and forks. The client in answer D is also radioactive in small amounts, especially upon return from the procedure, so answer D is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Continue the collection as ordered by the physician
B. Discard the collected urine, obtain a new bottle, and begin the collection again
C. Record the information in the client’s chart and continue the collection
D. Extend the collection time to replace the last voiding
Failure to collect all urine voided in the 24-hour period invalidates specimen results; therefore, the nurse should obtain a new collection bottle, discard the collected urine, and begin the collection again. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they are improper ways of obtaining a 24-hour urine specimen.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Continue to monitor the vital signs
B. Contact the physician
C. Ask the client how he feels
D. Ask the LPN to continue the postop care
The vital signs are abnormal and should be reported immediately. Continuing to monitor the vital signs can result in deterioration of the client’s condition, so answer A is incorrect. Asking the client how he feels would supply only subjective data, so answer C is incorrect. The LPN is not the best nurse to be assigned to this client because he is unstable, so answer D is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Eliminates the neurotransmitter acetylcholine
B. Increases the perception of external stimuli
C. Decreases levels of cortisol from the adrenal cortex
D. Produces a seizure that temporarily alters brain chemicals
Electroconvulsive therapy produces a tonic-clonic seizure that temporarily increases brain chemicals, serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine. Answers A, B, and C are not true statements; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. 1400
B. 1500
C. 1600
D. 1700
Blood must be finished within four hours of the start time. Answers in A, B, and C are before the 4-hour time limit, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
You are working on the 3pm-11pm shift. Estimate the patients 8 hour intake when administered with the following: IVF @ 25cc/hr continuous; TPN @ 50cc/hr continuous; Lipids at 10cc/hr for 12 hours (8pm-8am); NGT feeds @ 25 cc/hr continuous; 2 units of blood – 250ml/unit – first unit at 10am/ second unit at 4pm; IV Vancomycin – 250ml every 12 hours at 8am/8pm.
REMEMBER: cc = mL
IVF = 25 mL x 8 hours = 200 mL
TPN = 50 mL x 8 hours = 400 mL
Lipids = 10 mL x 3 hours (consider only 3hours 8pm-11pm as shift ends at 11pm) = 30 mL
NGT feeds = 25 mL x 8 hours = 200 mL
Blood - x1 unit given at 4pm included in 3pm-11pm shift = 250 mL
IV Vancomycin = 250 mL (given at 8pm, 8am shift not included)
TOTAL INTAKE = 1330 mLs
The Correct Answer is True
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