Demo Quiz
Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. The client receiving radium linear accelerator radiation therapy for cancer
B. The client with a radium implant for vaginal cancer
C. The client who has just been administered radioactive isotopes for cancer
D. The client who returned from placement of iridium seeds for prostate cancer
The pregnant nurse should not be assigned to any client with radioactivity present. The client receiving linear accelerator therapy travels to the radium department for therapy, and the radiation stays in the department. Thus, the client is not radioactive. The client in answer B poses a risk to the pregnant client, so answer B is incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because the client is radioactive in very small doses. For approximately 72 hours, the client should dispose of urine and feces in special containers and use plastic spoons and forks. The client in answer D is also radioactive in small amounts, especially upon return from the procedure, so answer D is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is True
The Correct Answer is Option A
To calculate for the rate in mL/hr:
Drug wanted x Conversion Factor (mcg/mg) / Drug on hand (in mg/mL) x flow rate in volume over time (mL/hr)
15mcg x 1mg x 250mL x 60mins = 9mL/hr
min 1000mcg 25mg 1 hour
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Blood or body fluid exposure to the virus
B. Emptying her cat’s litter box
C. Contaminated food or water
D. Pigeon feces
Cytomegalovirus virus is transmitted predominantly by blood or body fluid exposure to the virus. Answer B is incorrect, toxoplasmosis is transmitted through contaminated cat feces. Answer C is incorrect because contaminated food or water can cause many illnesses; for example, E. coli, listeria, Clostridium difficile, and many others. Answer D is incorrect because histoplasmosis is transmitted by bird feces.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. 1400
B. 1500
C. 1600
D. 1700
Blood must be finished within four hours of the start time. Answers in A, B, and C are before the 4-hour time limit, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Serum phosphorus of 3.0 mg/dL
B. Alkaline phosphatase of 70 units/L
C. Serum calcium 16.0 mg/dL
D. Aldolase 3.5 units/dL
Serum calcium levels rise with metastatic cancer of the bone. Normal calcium is 9.0 mg/dL–10.5 mg/dL. Answers A and D are incorrect because these are within normal limits and not related to bone metastasis. Normal phosphorus level is 3.0–4.5 mg/dL and normal aldolase level is 3.0–8.2 units/dL. Alkaline phosphatase is elevated in bone metastasis and Answer B is within the normal of 30–120 units/L, so it is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Phosphorus 2.5 mEq/L
B. Potassium 1.8 mEq/L
C. Calcium 9.4 mg/dl
D. Magnesium 2.4 mEq/L
The client taking furosemide is at risk for developing hypokalemia (decreased potassium) because this drug is a non–potassium-sparing diuretic. A potassium level of 1.8 is extremely low and might result in cardiac dysrhythmias. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because the levels noted in the question are within normal levels.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Warming the intravenous fluids
B. Determining whether the client can take oral fluids
C. Checking for the strength of pedal pulses
D. Obtaining the specific gravity of the urine
Warming the intravenous fluid helps to prevent further stress on the vascular system. Thirst is a sign of hypovolemia; however, oral fluids alone will not meet the fluid needs of the client in hypovolemic shock, so answer B is incorrect. Answers C and D are wrong because they can be used for baseline information but will not help stabilize the client.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Syndenham’s chorea
B. Polymigratory arthritis
C. Splinter hemorrhages
D. Erythema marginatum
Splinter hemorrhages, dark lines beneath the nails, are associated with embolization. Answers A, B, and D are associated with rheumatic fever, not infective bacterial endocarditis; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Prepare the child for surgery
B. Document the finding only
C. Notify the physician
D. Palpate the child’s abdomen
The passage of a soft formed brown stool is an indication that the intussusception is resolving. Answer A is incorrect because the condition is resolving without surgery. Answer B is incorrect because the physician should be notified in addition to documenting the finding. Answer D is incorrect because the nurse should not palpate the abdomen of a child recovering from intussusception.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Kawasaki disease
D. Thromboangiitis obliterans
The other name for Buerger’s disease is thromboangiitis obliterans. Answer A is incorrect because pheochromocytoma is an adrenal tumor. Answer B is incorrect because intermittent claudication is pain in an extremity when walking. Answer C is incorrect because Kawasaki disease is an acute vasculitis that can result in an aneurysm in the thoracic area.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Wearing gloves when emptying the client’s bedpan
B. Keeping all linens in the room until the implant is removed
C. Wearing a lead apron when providing direct care to the client
D. Placing the client in a 4 bedded room with shared toilet
A private room with a private bath is essential if a client has an internal radiation implant. This is necessary to prevent accidental exposure of other clients to radiation. The remaining options identify accurate interventions for a client with an internal radiation implant and protect the nurse from exposure.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Take the medication as ordered prior to the exam
B. Limit the amount of protein in the diet prior to the exam
C. Discontinue the medication prior to the exam
D. Take the medication with only water prior to the exam
Glucophage can cause renal problems. The dye used in cardiac catheterizations is also detrimental to the kidneys. The client may be placed on sliding scale insulin for 48 hours after the dye procedure or until renal function returns. Note the syllable phage, as seen in the syllable phagia, which means eating. Also note that answers A and C are opposites. Answer A is incorrect because the medication should be withheld; answer B is incorrect because limiting the amount of protein in the diet prior to the exam has no correlation to the medication. Taking the medication with water is not necessary, so answer D is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Breath sounds
B. Deep tendon reflexes
C. Blood pressure
D. Bowel sounds
The patient is exhibiting symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia. The hypertension can be severe and requires treatment; therefore, this assessment is essential. The assessments in Answers A, B, and D might all be done, but C is the priority, so the others are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Negligence
B. Tort
C. Assault
D. Malpractice
Assault is defined as striking or touching the client inappropriately. Negligence is failing to perform care for the client, so answer A is incorrect. A tort is a wrongful act committed on the client or his belongings, so answer B is incorrect. Malpractice is failing to perform an act that the nurse knows should be done or doing something wrong that causes harm to the client, so answer D is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. The nurse prepares an IV of D10W.
B. The nurse prepares to administer insulin IV.
C. The nurse obtains NPH insulin for administration.
D. The nurse inserts a Foley catheter.
The client with a blood glucose of 545 mg/dl is in metabolic acidosis. An IV with insulin will be ordered. Insulin takes the glucose into the cells hence, reducing the glucose levels. Answer A is incorrect because D10W will increase the glucose level and potentiate the client’s condition. Answer C is incorrect because regular insulin will be ordered, not NPH, which is long-acting. Answer D is incorrect because although a Foley catheter might be ordered, it is not necessary for the improvement of the client’s condition.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Risedronate (Actonel)
B. Alendronate (Fosamax)
C. Ibandronate (Boniva)
D. Raloxifene (Evista)
Evista should not be given to clients with liver disease because it can make the condition worse. Answers A, B, and C are not contraindicated in liver disease clients, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
Volume of water to add (mL) = total volume of formula on hand (mL) – total volume of formula on hand (mL)
Diluted strength
mL water = (480mL / ½) – 480mL = (480mL x 2) – 480mL = 960mL – 480mL = 480mL
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Culture
B. VDRL
C. RPR
D. FTA-ABS
The fluorescent treponemal antibody test (FTA-ABS) is most diagnostic for syphilis. Answer A is incorrect because a culture of the discharge is used to diagnose gonorrhea, not syphilis. Answers B and C are incorrect because they are screening tests and are not as diagnostic as the FTA-ABS is.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Elevate the extremity on a pillow
B. Administer pain medication
C. Administer pain medication
D. Perform a neurovascular reassessment
The physician must be notified because the client is at risk for compartment syndrome. The healthcare provider might order that the cast be bivalved, or a fasciotomy might be required. Answers A, B, and D will not take the action necessary to prevent the complication of compartment syndrome.
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