Demo Quiz
Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Leg cramps
B. Hot flashes
C. Urinary frequency
D. Cold extremities
This drug is in the same category as the chemotherapeutic agent tamoxifene (Novaldex) used for breast cancer. In the case of Evista, this drug is used to treat osteoporosis. Notice that the E stands for estrogen. This drug has an agonist effect, so it binds with estrogen and can cause hot flashes. This drug does not cause leg cramps, urinary frequency, or cold extremities, so answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Bowel sound auscultation
B. Pupillary response to light
C. Assessing for hematuria
D. Cranial nerve 8 assessment
The pelvis is close to major organs and the nurse needs to assess for damage to associated organs. The bladder could have been damaged and hematuria assessment would be a priority. Answers A, B, and D are important assessments, but are not the priority, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
You are working on the 3pm-11pm shift. Estimate the patients 8 hour intake when administered with the following: IVF @ 25cc/hr continuous; TPN @ 50cc/hr continuous; Lipids at 10cc/hr for 12 hours (8pm-8am); NGT feeds @ 25 cc/hr continuous; 2 units of blood – 250ml/unit – first unit at 10am/ second unit at 4pm; IV Vancomycin – 250ml every 12 hours at 8am/8pm.
REMEMBER: cc = mL
IVF = 25 mL x 8 hours = 200 mL
TPN = 50 mL x 8 hours = 400 mL
Lipids = 10 mL x 3 hours (consider only 3hours 8pm-11pm as shift ends at 11pm) = 30 mL
NGT feeds = 25 mL x 8 hours = 200 mL
Blood - x1 unit given at 4pm included in 3pm-11pm shift = 250 mL
IV Vancomycin = 250 mL (given at 8pm, 8am shift not included)
TOTAL INTAKE = 1330 mLs
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Stop the blood transfusion and keep the vein open with normal saline
B. Administer epinephrine per unit protocol
C. Notify the physician
D. Obtain a set of vital signs
The nurse would first ensure that the patient doesn’t get any more of the wrong blood due to displaying symptoms of a hemolytic blood reaction. Answers B, C, and D are proper actions with a blood transfusion reaction, but none is the initial action, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Nitroprusside (Nipride)
B. Naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan)
C. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
The postoperative period, narcotics are given. Narcan is the antidote to narcotics, so answer B is correct. Nipride is utilized to lower blood pressure, so answer A is incorrect. Romazicon is the antidote for the benzodiazepines, so answer C is incorrect. Benadryl is an antihistamine, so answer D is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Hiccups
B. Dysphagia
C. Fever
D. Bradycardia
Other clinical manifestations include pain, nausea, vomiting, rebound tenderness upon palpation, flatulence, and indigestion. Answers A, B, and D are not associated with cholecystitis, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
Clients with GERD should eat four to six small meals per day to prevent reflux rather than three large meals. Answers B, C, and D are recommendations for health promotion tactics to control reflux. Other aspects include no snacking in the evening; no food two to three hours before bedtime; elevating the head of the bed at night; avoiding heavy lifting and straining; and limiting fatty, spicy foods, coffee, chocolate, alcohol, and colas.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Prolactin
B. Human chorionic gonadotropin
C. Lecithin-sphingomyelin
D. Estriol
HCG levels elevate rapidly and can be detected as early as two days after the missed period. Answer A is incorrect because prolactin is elevated with a prolactinoma, a type of pituitary tumor. Answer C is incorrect because lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S ratio) is indicative of lung maturity. Answer D is incorrect because estriol levels indicate fetal well-being.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Numbness on the side of the face
B. Yellow sclera
C. Bleeding gums
D. Constipation
The fat-soluble vitamins are A, D, E, and K. A deficiency in vitamin K results in ineffective prothrombin, which can cause bleeding and bruising. The answers in A and D have no relationship to gallstones, so they are incorrect. Answer B occurs with blockage and backup of bile, so it is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Fractures of the ribs
B. Contusions of the lower legs
C. Fractures of the humerus
D. Lacerations of the face
Fractures of the ribs can result in a closed pneumothorax, a life-threatening emergency, that requires early detection and treatment. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not pose a risk to the life of the client.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Instruct the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver
B. Elevate the tubing above the client’s chest level
C. Decrease the amount of suction being applied
D. Form a water seal and obtain a new connector
The nurse should form a water seal, remove the contaminated end, and insert a new sterile connector. The Valsalva maneuver is used when the chest tube is being removed, therefore Answer A is incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because the chest drainage system is maintained below the client’s chest level. Answer C is incorrect because the nurse cannot alter the amount of suction being applied without a doctor’s order.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Administering a local anesthetic
B. Checking for an allergic response
C. Administering an anxiolytic
D. Withholding fluids for 6–8 hours
The nurse should perform the skin or eye test before administering antivenin. Answers A and D are unnecessary and therefore incorrect. Answer C would help calm the client but is not a priority before giving the antivenin, making it incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
To calculate for the volume dose:
Drug wanted / Drug on hand x volume = 8000 units / 10,000 units x 1mL = 0.8mL
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Call the doctor
B. Stop the IV infusion of Vancomycin
C. Administer Benadryl as ordered
D. Take the vital signs
All are important however, the initial step is to stop the cause of the allergy.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. 100 ml
B. 300 ml
C. 500 ml
D. 700 ml
Fluid intake for the client with acute glomerulonephritis is limited to urinary output plus 500 mL to 600 mL. Answers A and B are incorrect because the intake is too limited. Answer D is incorrect because the intake is excessive.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Vancomycin (Vancocin) IV
B. Ampicillin (Omnipen) PO
C. Ceftriazone (Rocephin) IM
D. Cefotaxime sodium (Claforan)
Vancomycin IV would be the antibiotic of choice for resistant strands of meningitis. The client would need the medication to work quickly, making Answers B and C incorrect. Answer D is an antibiotic used for meningitis, but would not be the one of choice for resistant strains of meningitis, so it is wrong.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. CSF protein elevation with a normal cell count
B. WBC count of 2800 mm
C. Abnormal liver function test
D. Abnormal electromyographic (EMG) studies
This is the most definitive diagnostic result. The client would experience an elevated white blood cell count, which makes Answer B incorrect. Answers C and D can occur with many diagnoses, so they are not specific for Guillain-Barrè and are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Inserting a Foley catheter
B. Discontinuing a nasogastric tube
C. Obtaining a sputum specimen
D. Starting a blood transfusion
The LPN can be assigned to insert Foley and French urinary catheters, discontinue Levin and gavage gastric tubes, and obtain all types of specimens. Administering a blood transfusion is outside the scope of practice of an LPN. Another practice outside of an LPN's scope is administering a controlled medication such as Morphine. LPNs can witness the commencement of blood transfusion and witness the administration of controlled medications.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Cover the cord with dry, sterile gauze
B. Place the client in high Fowler’s position
C. Push up on the presenting part with an examining finger
D. Begin an IV of normal saline at keep-open rate
The nurse should push on the presenting part to relieve pressure on the cord and facilitate blood flow through the cord. Answer A is incorrect because the sterile gauze should be moist, not dry. Answer B is incorrect because the client should be placed in Trendelenburg position, not high Fowler’s position. Answer D is incorrect because the IV fluid should be rapid, not keep-open rate, to increase hydration and blood flow to the fetus.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Presence of serum albumin in the interstitial space
B. Increased capillary permeability
C. Erratic drainage of the lymphatic system
D. Altered osmotic pressure in the blood vessels
Hypovolemic shock is the result of increased capillary permeability that leads to third spacing or capillary leak syndrome. The loss of plasma fluids and proteins decreases blood volume and blood pressure. Answers A, C, and D do not relate to hypovolemic shock; therefore, they are incorrect.
Please fill this form to further take Demo Quiz.



College of Nursing Education & Training Australia acknowledges the Traditional Owners of the country throughout Australia and recognises their continuing connection to land, waters and culture. We pay our respects to Elders past, present and emerging
NCLEX-P ®, NCLEX-RN® are registered trademarks of the National Council of State Boards of Nursing, Inc (NCSBN ®) College of Nursing Education & Training Australia is neither endorsed by nor affiliated with AHPRA. None of the trademark holders is affiliated with, and does not endorse, College of Nursing Education & Training Australia Products.