Demo Quiz
Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Increase her intake of milk and dairy products.
B. Avoid taking bubble baths
C. Use underwear made from nylon
D. Drink orange juice for breakfast
The nurse should tell the client to avoid tub baths as well as bubble baths. The client should be instructed to wear cotton underwear and to avoid tight-fitting clothing such as jeans. Answers A, C, and D do not decrease the incidence of cystitis; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Eliminates the neurotransmitter acetylcholine
B. Increases the perception of external stimuli
C. Decreases levels of cortisol from the adrenal cortex
D. Produces a seizure that temporarily alters brain chemicals
Electroconvulsive therapy produces a tonic-clonic seizure that temporarily increases brain chemicals, serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine. Answers A, B, and C are not true statements; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Surgical ANTT
B. Standard ANTT
C. Sterile ANTT
D. Clean procedure
Simple procedures requiring asepsis will require Standard ANTT. These procedures include simple wound dressings, IV medication preparation and administration, removal of surgical drains, and changing of IV fluids.
Surgical ANTT is for invasive procedures such as IV cannulation and Urinary catheterization
Clean procedures are for non-invasive, non-sterile skills such as NGT insertion or colostomy care.
The Correct Answer is True
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Warming the intravenous fluids
B. Determining whether the client can take oral fluids
C. Checking for the strength of pedal pulses
D. Obtaining the specific gravity of the urine
Warming the intravenous fluid helps to prevent further stress on the vascular system. Thirst is a sign of hypovolemia; however, oral fluids alone will not meet the fluid needs of the client in hypovolemic shock, so answer B is incorrect. Answers C and D are wrong because they can be used for baseline information but will not help stabilize the client.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Severe headache
B. Slight nausea
C. Decreased urination
D. Itching
A severe headache can indicate impending seizure activity. Slight nausea is expected when beginning the therapy, so answer B is incorrect. A client with renal failure already has itching and decreased urination, so answers C and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Instruct the aggressive patient to help you with ambulating the bedridden patient
B. Instruct the ambulant patient to assist the 78-year-old in the evacuation process while you seek help in evacuating the bedridden patient
C. Call the switchboard for help in the evacuation
D. Tell everyone the building is on fire and that all take the fire exit
Ambulant patients can assist semi ambulant patients in case of emergency. Take the full dependent and aggressive patients last. There is no point in asking the switchboard as the alarm has been activated. The fire warden is in charge of instructing all people in the building, no the nurse.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Gemcitabine (Gemzar)
B. Gefitinib (Iressa)
C. Cabergoline (Dostinex)
D. Ganciclovir (Cytovene)
Dostinex is used to shrink the prolactin-based tumor. Answers A and B are antineoplastic drugs. Answer D is an antiviral medication.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. A 42-year-old with dyspnea and chest asymmetry
B. A 17-year-old with a fractured arm
C. A 4-year-old with facial lacerations
D. A 30-year-old with blunt abdominal trauma
Following the ABCDs of basic emergency care, the client with dyspnea and asymmetrical chest should be cared for first because these symptoms are associated with flail chest. Answer D is incorrect because he should be cared for second because of the likelihood of organ damage and bleeding. Answer B is incorrect because he should be cared for after the client with abdominal trauma. Answer C is incorrect because he should receive care last because his injuries are less severe.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Insulin
B. Inderal (propanolol)
C. Lasix (furosemide)
D. Valium (diazepam)
Lasix is a non–potassium-sparing diuretic. This drug can potentiate fluid volume deficit. Answer A is incorrect because insulin will force fluid back into the cell and will not increase fluid volume deficit. Answer B is incorrect because Inderal (propanolol) is a beta-blocker used for the treatment of hypertension and cardiac disease. Inderal does not potentiate diuresis. Answer D is incorrect because Valium (diazepam) is a phenothiazine used as an anti-anxiety medication. This drug does not potentiate fluid volume deficit.
The Correct Answer is Option D
Use the medication formula:
Desired / Available x Volume = 1,000,000units / 1,200,000units x 2mL = 1.66666666667 mL
Rounded off to two decimal places: 1.67 mL
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Stop the blood transfusion and keep the vein open with normal saline
B. Administer epinephrine per unit protocol
C. Notify the physician
D. Obtain a set of vital signs
The nurse would first ensure that the patient doesn’t get any more of the wrong blood due to displaying symptoms of a hemolytic blood reaction. Answers B, C, and D are proper actions with a blood transfusion reaction, but none is the initial action, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Inserting a Foley catheter
B. Discontinuing a nasogastric tube
C. Obtaining a sputum specimen
D. Starting a blood transfusion
The LPN can be assigned to insert Foley and French urinary catheters, discontinue Levin and gavage gastric tubes, and obtain all types of specimens. Administering a blood transfusion is outside the scope of practice of an LPN. Another practice outside of an LPN's scope is administering a controlled medication such as Morphine. LPNs can witness the commencement of blood transfusion and witness the administration of controlled medications.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. A defect in the cochlea
B. A defect in cranial nerve VIII
C. A physical obstruction to the transmission of sound waves
D. A defect in the sensory fibers that lead to the cerebral cortex
A conductive hearing loss occurs as a result of a physical obstruction to the transmission of sound waves. A sensorineural hearing loss occurs as a result of a pathological process in the inner ear, a defect in cranial nerve VIII, or a defect of the sensory fibers that lead to the cerebral cortex.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. An internal fetal heart monitor
B. An IV rate controller
C. A blood administration set
D. A wall suction device
An IV rate controller must be obtained in order to safely administer magnesium sulfate. If magnesium sulfate is administered too quickly, toxicity can result, leading to respiratory arrest. Answer A is incorrect because there is no need to insert an internal fetal monitor. If magnesium sulfate is administered to the pregnant client, an external fetal monitor is sufficient. Answer C is incorrect because a standard IV administration set is used. Answer D is incorrect because there is no specific need for wall suction to be available with the administration of magnesium sulfate.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Hemarthrosis of the elbow
B. Bruise of the ankle
C. Bruise of the ankle
D. Unilateral numbness and lack of movement of arm
The neurological symptoms could mean an intracranial bleed has occurred. The answers in A, B, and C are reasons for concern, but they are not the priority, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Dry mouth
B. Palpitations
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Anemia
Side effects from bronchodilators such as theophylline include tremulousness, palpitations, and restlessness. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not expected side effects of bronchodilators.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Waterpik
B. Wire cutter
C. Humidifier
D. Oral rinse
Wire cutters must be at the bedside at all times to decrease the risk of aspiration with vomiting. Answers A and D are usually used in the care of clients with a fractured mandible, but are not as essential as the wire cutters, so they are incorrect. The answer in C is not a usual piece of equipment for clients with fractured mandibles, so it is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. An elementary school teacher
B. A resident in a nursing home
C. An office worker
D. A local firefighter
Clients over age 65 and those with chronic conditions should receive priority in receiving influenza vaccine when supplies are limited. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not receive priority in receiving the immunization.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
The client with internal bleeding will most likely have metabolic acidosis. The laboratory findings reflect this suspicion. The pH is down, the PaCO2 is down, and the HCO3 is down. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not consistent with the lab values given in the question.
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