Demo Quiz
Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
When assessing arterial blood gases, the nurse should look at the pH. In this case, the pH is low. After assessing the pH, the nurse should look at the PaCO2. In this case, the PaCO2 is elevated. Finally, look at the HCO3. In this question, the HCO3 is elevated. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect findings because they are not consistent with the lab values given in the question.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Hiccups
B. Dysphagia
C. Fever
D. Bradycardia
Other clinical manifestations include pain, nausea, vomiting, rebound tenderness upon palpation, flatulence, and indigestion. Answers A, B, and D are not associated with cholecystitis, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Autograft
B. Isograft
C. Allograft
D. Xenograft
Xenografts are taken from animal sources. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they originate from human donors.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Phalen’s maneuver
B. Tinel’s sign
C. Chevotsky’s sign
D. Turner’s sign
This test is measured as described and can result in pain and a tingling sensation if the client has carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS). Answer A is incorrect because it is a test in which the client is asked to place the back of the hands together and flex the wrist at the same time causing pain. Answers C and D are exams not related to CTS, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Webbed neckWebbed neck
B. High arched palate
C. Scaphoid abdomen
D. Low-set ears
Structural anomalies in the infant with polycystic kidney disease include low-set ears, pointed nose, and small chin. Answers A, B, and C are not associated with polycystic kidney disease; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Schedule frequent eye exams
B. Expect red discoloration of his urine
C. Increase his fluid intake
D. Expect dizziness and ringing in his ears
The use of pyrazinamide can result in gout-like symptoms; therefore, the client should increase his fluid intake. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they are associated with other antitubercular medications.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Chocolate milk
B. Grapefruit juice
C. Orange juice
D. Milk
Sandimmune oral solution should not be mixed with grapefruit juice. Answers A, C, and D are all suitable beverages for mixing with the medication; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy three weeks ago with a PEG tube
B. The 5-month-old discharged one week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with vancomycin via a PICC line
D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter
The client who should receive priority is the client with multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via the central line because this client is at the highest risk for complications. The clients described in answers A and B are stable at the time of the assigned visit. They can be seen later. The client in C has methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Vancomycin is the drug of choice and can be administered later, but it must be scheduled at specific times of the day to maintain a therapeutic level, so answer C is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Frontal lobe
B. Occipital lobe
C. Temporal lobe
D. Parietal lobe
Partial seizures usually originate in the temporal lobe, making Answers A, B, and D incorrect because partial seizures do not usually occur in the other lobes.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Cleansing the skin with a pH-balanced soap
B. Lubricating the skin with a moisturizing cream
C. Massaging reddened areas of the skin
D. Using absorbent garments for incontinence
The nurse should avoid massaging reddened areas of the skin because it can result in damage to capillary beds and lead to tissue necrosis. Answers A, B, and D are appropriate interventions for the client at risk for pressure ulcers; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Polydipsia and bradycardia
B. Euphoria and polyuria
C. Muscle weakness and irritability
D. Ringing in the ears and blurred vision
Other symptoms of SIADH include loss of thirst, tachycardia, hostility, and decreased urinary output. This makes Answers A and B incorrect. The answer in D is not associated with SIADH, so it is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Ambu bag
B. IV controller
C. Bit drill
D. Torque screwdriver
This equipment is necessary in case the pins become loose. The family should also be instructed in this before discharge for home care. The answers in A, B, and C are not necessary are appropriate due to a halo vest application.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Have one of the client’s family members interpret.
B. Have the Spanish-speaking triage receptionist interpret.
C. Page an interpreter from the hospital’s interpreter services.
D. Obtain a Spanish-English dictionary and attempt to triage the client.
The best action is to have a professional hospital-based interpreter translate for the client. English-speaking family members may not appropriately understand what is asked of them and may paraphrase what the client is actually saying. Also, client confidentiality, as well as accurate information, may be compromised when a family member or a non–health care provider acts as an interpreter.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. LDH
B. Troponin
C. Creatinine
D. AST
The best diagnostic tool for confirming that the client has experienced a myocardial infarction is the troponin level. Another lab value associated with a myocardial infarction is the CKMB. Answer A is incorrect because the LDH is also elevated in clients with muscle trauma not associated with an MI. Answer C is incorrect because the creatinine level indicates renal function. Answer D is incorrect because the AST level is elevated with gallbladder and liver disease as well as muscle inflammation.
The Correct Answer is False
Hot compress is contraindicated to traumatic injuries within 24 hours
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Syndenham’s chorea
B. Polymigratory arthritis
C. Splinter hemorrhages
D. Erythema marginatum
Splinter hemorrhages, dark lines beneath the nails, are associated with embolization. Answers A, B, and D are associated with rheumatic fever, not infective bacterial endocarditis; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. The client rigidly extends the arms with pronated forearms and plantar flexion of the feet
B. The client flexes a leg at the hip and knee and reports pain in the vertebral column when the leg is extended
C. The client passively flexes the hip and knee in response to neck flexion and reports pain in the vertebral column.
D. The client’s upper arms are flexed and held tightly to the sides of the body and the legs are extended and internally rotated.
Brudzinski’s sign is tested with the client in the supine position. The nurse flexes the client’s head (gently moves the head to the chest), and there should be no reports of pain or resistance to the neck flexion. A positive Brudzinski’s sign is observed if the client passively flexes the hip and knee in response to neck flexion and reports pain in the vertebral column. Kernig’s sign also tests for meningeal irritation and is positive when the client flexes the legs at the hip and knee and complains of pain along the vertebral column when the leg is extended. Decorticate posturing is abnormal flexion and is noted when the client’s upper arms are flexed and held tightly to the sides of the body and the legs are extended and internally rotated. Decerebrate posturing is abnormal extension and occurs when the arms are fully extended, forearms pronated, wrists and fingers flexed, jaws clenched, neck extended, and feet plantar-flexed
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. 2–4 mm
B. 3–5 mm
C. 6–8 mm
D. 7–9 mm
The normal pupil diameter is between 3 and 5 mm in size. Answers A, C, and D are not normal pupil diameters; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Stop the blood transfusion and keep the vein open with normal saline
B. Administer epinephrine per unit protocol
C. Notify the physician
D. Obtain a set of vital signs
The nurse would first ensure that the patient doesn’t get any more of the wrong blood due to displaying symptoms of a hemolytic blood reaction. Answers B, C, and D are proper actions with a blood transfusion reaction, but none is the initial action, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Acetylcysteine
B. Deferoxamine
C. Calcium disodium acetate
D. British anti-lewisite
Deferoxamine is the antidote for iron poisoning. Answer A is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose, making it wrong. Answers C and D are antidotes for lead poisoning, so they are wrong.
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