Demo Quiz
Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option D
Volume of water to add (mL) = total volume of formula on hand (mL) – total volume of formula on hand (mL)
Diluted strength
mL water = (200mL / ¾) – 200mL = (200mL x 4) / (1x3) – 200mL = 267mL – 200mL = 66.6666667 = 67mL
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Excitability
B. Tremors
C. Heart rate 150
D. Nausea
Adverse effects of epinephrine include hypertension and tachycardia. Answers A, B, and D are expected side effects of racemic epinephrine.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Adolescent males
B. Preteen males
C. Preteen females
D. Adolescent females
The most likely group to have scoliosis is adolescent girls. The groups in Answers A, B, and C are not as likely to have scoliosis; therefore, those answers are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Constriction of blood flow
B. Immobilization of the joint
C. Formation of a decubitus ulcer
D. Oozing of blood from the wound
Wrapping an elastic bandage on a stump using the circular technique can cause the wrap to act as a tourniquet and restrict blood flow, so a figure eight technique is utilized to prevent this from occurring. Answers B, C, and D are not the primary reasons for use of the figure eight technique, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Kernig’s
B. Chadwick
C. McBurney’s
D. Chvostek’s
The test for Chvostek’s sign is performed by tapping the facial nerve (C7) and the trigeminal nerve (C5) and observing for grimacing. Answer A is incorrect because Kernig’s sign is nuchal (neck) rigidity associated with meningitis. Answer B is incorrect because Chadwick’s sign is a bluish vagina associated with hormonal changes. Answer C is incorrect because McBurney’s sign is rebound tenderness associated with appendicitis.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. The client rigidly extends the arms with pronated forearms and plantar flexion of the feet
B. The client flexes a leg at the hip and knee and reports pain in the vertebral column when the leg is extended
C. The client passively flexes the hip and knee in response to neck flexion and reports pain in the vertebral column.
D. The client’s upper arms are flexed and held tightly to the sides of the body and the legs are extended and internally rotated.
Brudzinski’s sign is tested with the client in the supine position. The nurse flexes the client’s head (gently moves the head to the chest), and there should be no reports of pain or resistance to the neck flexion. A positive Brudzinski’s sign is observed if the client passively flexes the hip and knee in response to neck flexion and reports pain in the vertebral column. Kernig’s sign also tests for meningeal irritation and is positive when the client flexes the legs at the hip and knee and complains of pain along the vertebral column when the leg is extended. Decorticate posturing is abnormal flexion and is noted when the client’s upper arms are flexed and held tightly to the sides of the body and the legs are extended and internally rotated. Decerebrate posturing is abnormal extension and occurs when the arms are fully extended, forearms pronated, wrists and fingers flexed, jaws clenched, neck extended, and feet plantar-flexed
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Kawasaki disease
D. Thromboangiitis obliterans
The other name for Buerger’s disease is thromboangiitis obliterans. Answer A is incorrect because pheochromocytoma is an adrenal tumor. Answer B is incorrect because intermittent claudication is pain in an extremity when walking. Answer C is incorrect because Kawasaki disease is an acute vasculitis that can result in an aneurysm in the thoracic area.
The Correct Answer is Option C
Answer: C. A weight of 22.5 pounds is equal to 10.22 kilograms.
At 50 mg/kg, this child would need 511 milligrams of medication.
Using the formula:
Drug Desired / Drug Available x Volume = 511mg / 100mg x mL = 5.1 mL
At 100 mg/mL, the proper dose in milliliters is 5.1 milliliters.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. 100 ml
B. 300 ml
C. 500 ml
D. 700 ml
Fluid intake for the client with acute glomerulonephritis is limited to urinary output plus 500 mL to 600 mL. Answers A and B are incorrect because the intake is too limited. Answer D is incorrect because the intake is excessive.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. The client who is 40 weeks gestation having contractions every 5 minutes lasting 50 seconds
B. The client who is 32 weeks gestation with terbutaline (Brethine) intravenously
C. The one-day postpartum client who has changed two peri-pads in the last 6 hours
D. The diabetic obstetric client with a blood glucose level of 90 mg/dL
The client who is 32 weeks gestation receiving Brethrine is unstable and requires further nursing assessment. Answer A is incorrect because the client who is 40 weeks gestation having contractions every 5 minutes lasting 50 seconds is normal. Answer C is incorrect because changing two peripads in the last 6 hours is normal; therefore, it is not highest priority. Answer D is incorrect because a blood glucose of 90 mg/dL is within normal limits.
The Correct Answer is True
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Amenorrhea
B. Headache
C. Blurred vision
D. Weight loss
Prolactinoma tumors are tumors arising from hyperplasia of the pituitary gland that are prolactin hormone–based. Amenorrhea and anovulation are associated with prolactinomas because the pituitary gland assists with stimulation of the ovaries and ovulation, so answer A is correct. Because the pituitary is located in the center of the skull, adjacent to the brain, answers B and C are associated with increased intracranial pressure. Answer D is incorrect because weight gain can occur, not weight loss.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Take the medication as ordered prior to the exam
B. Limit the amount of protein in the diet prior to the exam
C. Discontinue the medication prior to the exam
D. Take the medication with only water prior to the exam
Glucophage can cause renal problems. The dye used in cardiac catheterizations is also detrimental to the kidneys. The client may be placed on sliding scale insulin for 48 hours after the dye procedure or until renal function returns. Note the syllable phage, as seen in the syllable phagia, which means eating. Also note that answers A and C are opposites. Answer A is incorrect because the medication should be withheld; answer B is incorrect because limiting the amount of protein in the diet prior to the exam has no correlation to the medication. Taking the medication with water is not necessary, so answer D is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
To calculate for the rate in mL/hr:
Drug wanted x Conversion Factor (mcg/mg) / Drug on hand (in mg/mL) x flow rate in volume over time (mL/hr)
15mcg x 1mg x 250mL x 60mins = 9mL/hr
min 1000mcg 25mg 1 hour
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Instruct the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver
B. Elevate the tubing above the client’s chest level
C. Decrease the amount of suction being applied
D. Form a water seal and obtain a new connector
The nurse should form a water seal, remove the contaminated end, and insert a new sterile connector. The Valsalva maneuver is used when the chest tube is being removed, therefore Answer A is incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because the chest drainage system is maintained below the client’s chest level. Answer C is incorrect because the nurse cannot alter the amount of suction being applied without a doctor’s order.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Constipation
B. White blood cell count of 14,000
C. Amylase of 460
D. Potassium of 3.1 mEq/L
Amylase and lipase are reliable tests used for pancreatitis diagnosis. The answers in A, B, and D are not directly related to the pancreas and not diagnostic, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Diarrheal illness caused by salmonella
B. Routine childhood immunization
C. Eruption of primary teeth
D. Otitis media
Facial cellulitis is associated with otitis media, a common ear infection in young children. Answers A, B, and C are not associated with the development of facial cellulitis; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. A 42-year-old with dyspnea and chest asymmetry
B. A 17-year-old with a fractured arm
C. A 4-year-old with facial lacerations
D. A 30-year-old with blunt abdominal trauma
Following the ABCDs of basic emergency care, the client with dyspnea and asymmetrical chest should be cared for first because these symptoms are associated with flail chest. Answer D is incorrect because he should be cared for second because of the likelihood of organ damage and bleeding. Answer B is incorrect because he should be cared for after the client with abdominal trauma. Answer C is incorrect because he should receive care last because his injuries are less severe.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Place a tourniquet proximal to the laceration
B. Elevate the leg above the level of the heart
C. Cover the laceration and apply an ice compress
D. Apply pressure to the femoral artery
If bleeding does not subside with direct pressure, the nurse should elevate the extremity above the level of the heart. Answers A and D are done only if other measures are ineffective, so they are incorrect. Answer C would slow the bleeding, but will not stop it, so it’s incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. An internal fetal heart monitor
B. An IV rate controller
C. A blood administration set
D. A wall suction device
An IV rate controller must be obtained in order to safely administer magnesium sulfate. If magnesium sulfate is administered too quickly, toxicity can result, leading to respiratory arrest. Answer A is incorrect because there is no need to insert an internal fetal monitor. If magnesium sulfate is administered to the pregnant client, an external fetal monitor is sufficient. Answer C is incorrect because a standard IV administration set is used. Answer D is incorrect because there is no specific need for wall suction to be available with the administration of magnesium sulfate.
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