Demo Quiz
Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option B
Volume of water to add (mL) = total volume of formula on hand (mL) – total volume of formula on hand (mL)
Diluted strength
mL water = (300mL / 2/3) – 300mL = (300mL x 3) / (1x2) – 300mL = 450mL – 300mL = 150mL
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
B. Podophyllin
C. AZT (Retrovir)
D. Isoniazid (Lanzid)
Acyclovir is used to treat genital herpes. Answer B is incorrect because Podophyllin is used to treat condyloma acuminata (venereal warts). Answer C is incorrect because AZT (Retrovir) is used to prevent HIV transmission from mother to baby. Answer D is incorrect because isoniazid is used to treat tuberculosis, not herpes.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Continue to monitor the vital signs
B. Contact the physician
C. Ask the client how he feels
D. Ask the LPN to continue the postop care
The vital signs are abnormal and should be reported immediately. Continuing to monitor the vital signs can result in deterioration of the client’s condition, so answer A is incorrect. Asking the client how he feels would supply only subjective data, so answer C is incorrect. The LPN is not the best nurse to be assigned to this client because he is unstable, so answer D is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Cleansing the skin with a pH-balanced soap
B. Lubricating the skin with a moisturizing cream
C. Massaging reddened areas of the skin
D. Using absorbent garments for incontinence
The nurse should avoid massaging reddened areas of the skin because it can result in damage to capillary beds and lead to tissue necrosis. Answers A, B, and D are appropriate interventions for the client at risk for pressure ulcers; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. 100 ml
B. 300 ml
C. 500 ml
D. 700 ml
Fluid intake for the client with acute glomerulonephritis is limited to urinary output plus 500 mL to 600 mL. Answers A and B are incorrect because the intake is too limited. Answer D is incorrect because the intake is excessive.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Hyperacute graft rejection is due to chronic inflammation and scaring.
B. Hyperacute graft rejection is a cellular response that occurs 1–3 weeks after transplantation.
C. Hyperacute graft rejection is more likely in clients who have received multiple blood transfusions.
D. Hyperacute graft rejection is managed by use of immunosuppressive medications.
Hyperacute graft rejection is more likely to occur in clients who receive a transplant from a donor with an ABO type different from their own, in those with a history of multiple blood transfusions, those with multiple pregnancies, or those with a previous transplant. Answers A and D are incorrect because they describe chronic graft rejection. Answer B describes acute graft rejection; therefore, it is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Propylthiouracil (PTU)
B. Fludrocortisone (Florinef)
C. Levothyroxine (Synthyroid)
D. Glipizide (Glucotrol)
Propylthiouracil (PTU) is an antithyroid medication. Answer B is incorrect because this is a cortisone preparation. Answer C is incorrect because this drug is used for hypothyroidism. Answer D is incorrect because this drug is used to treat diabetes.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Celestone
B. Dopamine
C. Serotonin
D. Anti-diuretic hormone
The neurotransmitter dopamine is missing in clients with Parkinson’s disease. Most of the treatment involves replacement of this drug. Answer A is a steroid. Answer C is a neurotransmitter not missing in Parkinson’s disease, and Answer D is secreted by the pituitary gland not related to the stated diagnosis; therefore Answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. After a shower or bath
B. While standing to void
C. After having a bowel movement
D. While lying in bed before arising
The nurse needs to teach the client how to perform a TSE. The nurse should instruct the client to perform the exam on the same day each month. The nurse should also instruct the client that the best time to perform a TSE is after a shower or bath when the hands are warm and soapy and the scrotum is warm. Palpation is easier and the client will be better able to identify any abnormalities. The client would stand to perform the exam, but it would be difficult to perform the exam while voiding. Having a bowel movement is unrelated to performing a TSE.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Administering a local anesthetic
B. Checking for an allergic response
C. Administering an anxiolytic
D. Withholding fluids for 6–8 hours
The nurse should perform the skin or eye test before administering antivenin. Answers A and D are unnecessary and therefore incorrect. Answer C would help calm the client but is not a priority before giving the antivenin, making it incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Breath sounds
B. Deep tendon reflexes
C. Blood pressure
D. Bowel sounds
The patient is exhibiting symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia. The hypertension can be severe and requires treatment; therefore, this assessment is essential. The assessments in Answers A, B, and D might all be done, but C is the priority, so the others are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Insulin
B. Inderal (propanolol)
C. Lasix (furosemide)
D. Valium (diazepam)
Lasix is a non–potassium-sparing diuretic. This drug can potentiate fluid volume deficit. Answer A is incorrect because insulin will force fluid back into the cell and will not increase fluid volume deficit. Answer B is incorrect because Inderal (propanolol) is a beta-blocker used for the treatment of hypertension and cardiac disease. Inderal does not potentiate diuresis. Answer D is incorrect because Valium (diazepam) is a phenothiazine used as an anti-anxiety medication. This drug does not potentiate fluid volume deficit.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Private room or cohort client
B. Personal respiratory protection device
C. Private room with negative airflow pressure
D. Mask worn by staff when the client needs to leave the room
Meningitis is transmitted by droplet infection. Precautions for this disease include a private room or cohort client and use of a standard precaution mask. Private negative airflow pressure rooms and personal respiratory protection devices are required for clients with airborne disease such as tuberculosis. When appropriate, a mask must be worn by the client and not the staff when the client leaves the room.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Chloride level
B. Potassium transport
C. Serum sodium
D. Calcium level
A positive sweat test is reflected by elevations in the chloride level. Answers B, C, and D are not measured by the sweat test; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Notify the physician
B. Remove the weight to release the pressure on the pin
C. Reposition the client to the supine position
D. Try to remove the pin for examination
The nurse should notify the physician so that the pin can be repaired. Answers B and D are actions that can have negative results on the bone healing process, so they are incorrect. Answer C will not help, so it is wrong.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. A schizophrenic client having visual and auditory hallucinations and the client with ulcerative colitis
B. The client who is six months pregnant with abdominal pain and the client with facial lacerations and a broken arm
C. A child whose pupils are fixed and dilated and his parents and a client with a frontal head injury
D. The client who arrives with a large puncture wound to the abdomen and the client with chest pain
Out of all these clients, it is best to hold the pregnant client and the client with a broken arm and facial lacerations in the same room. The other clients need to be placed in separate rooms, so answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is True
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. LDH
B. Troponin
C. Creatinine
D. AST
The best diagnostic tool for confirming that the client has experienced a myocardial infarction is the troponin level. Another lab value associated with a myocardial infarction is the CKMB. Answer A is incorrect because the LDH is also elevated in clients with muscle trauma not associated with an MI. Answer C is incorrect because the creatinine level indicates renal function. Answer D is incorrect because the AST level is elevated with gallbladder and liver disease as well as muscle inflammation.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Droplet precautions
B. Airborne precautions
C. Contact precautions
D. No isolation precautions are needed
No isolation precautions are needed because there is no evidence of human-to-human transmission. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they are not indicated in the care of the client with Legionnaires’ disease.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Inserting a Foley catheter
B. Discontinuing a nasogastric tube
C. Obtaining a sputum specimen
D. Starting a blood transfusion
The LPN can be assigned to insert Foley and French urinary catheters, discontinue Levin and gavage gastric tubes, and obtain all types of specimens. Administering a blood transfusion is outside the scope of practice of an LPN. Another practice outside of an LPN's scope is administering a controlled medication such as Morphine. LPNs can witness the commencement of blood transfusion and witness the administration of controlled medications.
Please fill this form to further take Demo Quiz.
College of Nursing Education & Training Australia acknowledges the Traditional Owners of the country throughout Australia and recognises their continuing connection to land, waters and culture. We pay our respects to Elders past, present and emerging
NCLEX-P ®, NCLEX-RN® are registered trademarks of the National Council of State Boards of Nursing, Inc (NCSBN ®) College of Nursing Education & Training Australia is neither endorsed by nor affiliated with AHPRA. None of the trademark holders is affiliated with, and does not endorse, College of Nursing Education & Training Australia Products.
