Demo Quiz
Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. A 42-year-old with dyspnoea and chest asymmetry
B. A 17-year-old with a fractured arm
C. A 4-year-old with facial lacerations
D. A 30-year-old with blunt abdominal trauma
Following the ABCDs of basic emergency care, the client with dyspnea and asymmetrical chest should be cared for first because these symptoms are associated with flail chest. Answer D is incorrect because he should be cared for second because of the likelihood of organ damage and bleeding. Answer B is incorrect because he should be cared for after the client with abdominal trauma. Answer C is incorrect because he should receive care last because his injuries are less severe.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Call for help.
B. Extinguish the fire.
C. Activate the fire alarm.
D. Confine the fire by closing the room door.
The order of priority in the event of a fire is to rescue the clients who are in immediate danger. The next step is to activate the fire alarm. The fire then is confined by closing all doors and, finally, the fire is extinguished.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Chocolate milk
B. Grapefruit juice
C. Orange juice
D. Milk
Sandimmune oral solution should not be mixed with grapefruit juice. Answers A, C, and D are all suitable beverages for mixing with the medication; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Dry the skin thoroughly and apply the cream
B. Use a vigorous circular motion to apply the cream
C. Apply the cream 2–3 minutes after the bath
D. Use the cream only if flaking of the skin is noted
The application of an emollient cream to the skin two or three minutes after bathing helps seal in moisture. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not facilitate rehydration of the skin.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Eliminates the neurotransmitter acetylcholine
B. Increases the perception of external stimuli
C. Decreases levels of cortisol from the adrenal cortex
D. Produces a seizure that temporarily alters brain chemicals
Electroconvulsive therapy produces a tonic-clonic seizure that temporarily increases brain chemicals, serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine. Answers A, B, and C are not true statements; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Develop an elevated digitalis level
B. Have a decrease in the digitalis levels
C. Have alterations in sodium levels
D. Develop tachycardia
The client taking digitalis should avoid constipation because constipation can lead to digitalis toxicity. Answer B is incorrect because constipation will not lead to a decrease in the digitalis levels. Answer C is incorrect because constipation does not result in alterations in the sodium level. Answer D is incorrect because digitalis toxicity will result in brachycardia, not tachycardia.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Sickledex
B. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
C. Partial thromboplastin time
D. Complete blood count
Hemoglobin electrophoresis is the test that verifies the diagnosis of sickle cell and is the most accurate because it separates the different hemoglobins. Answer A is a screening tool that lacks the accuracy of electrophoresis, so it is incorrect. The answers in C and D are not directly related to sickle cell, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
Answer: C. A weight of 22.5 pounds is equal to 10.22 kilograms.
At 50 mg/kg, this child would need 511 milligrams of medication.
Using the formula:
Drug Desired / Drug Available x Volume = 511mg / 100mg x mL = 5.1 mL
At 100 mg/mL, the proper dose in milliliters is 5.1 milliliters.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Checking the client’s blood sugar
B. Administering intravenous dextrose
C. Intubation and ventilator support
D. Administering regular insulin
The client has symptoms of insulin shock and the first step is to check the client’s blood sugar. If indicated, the client should be treated with intravenous dextrose. Answer B is wrong because it is not the first step the nurse should take. Answer C is wrong because it does not apply to the client’s symptoms. Answer D is wrong because it would be used for diabetic ketoacidosis, not insulin shock.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. LDH
B. Troponin
C. Creatinine
D. AST
The best diagnostic tool for confirming that the client has experienced a myocardial infarction is the troponin level. Another lab value associated with a myocardial infarction is the CKMB. Answer A is incorrect because the LDH is also elevated in clients with muscle trauma not associated with an MI. Answer C is incorrect because the creatinine level indicates renal function. Answer D is incorrect because the AST level is elevated with gallbladder and liver disease as well as muscle inflammation.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. A headache
B. Shortness of breath only during sleep
C. Lower back pain
D. Difficulty voiding
Clients with abdominal aortic aneurysms often complain of nausea, lower back pain, and feeling their heart beat in the abdomen. Answer A is incorrect because a headache is a symptom of a cerebral aneurysm. Answer B is incorrect because, although the client with an abdominal aneurysm might have shortness of breath, this symptom is not particular to during sleep. Answer D is incorrect because difficulty voiding is not associated with an abdominal aneurysm.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. The procedure will take one to two hours.
B. The client will be given oral medication to prepare for the test.
C. The urine will be bright green until the dye is excreted.
D. The client will need to limit fluid intake after the test.
Fluorescein will cause the client’s urine to be bright green in color until the dye is excreted. Answer A is incorrect; the procedure takes only a few minutes because the vessels fill rapidly. Answer B is incorrect because the dye is injected intravenously. Answer D is incorrect because the client will need to drink additional fluids to help eliminate the dye.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Cleansing the skin with a pH-balanced soap
B. Lubricating the skin with a moisturizing cream
C. Massaging reddened areas of the skin
D. Using absorbent garments for incontinence
The nurse should avoid massaging reddened areas of the skin because it can result in damage to capillary beds and lead to tissue necrosis. Answers A, B, and D are appropriate interventions for the client at risk for pressure ulcers; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Recent cardio thoracic surgery
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Emphysema
Recent abdominal or thoracic surgery are contraindications for chest physiotherapy. Chest physiotherapy includes the use of percussion, vibration and postural chest drainage. Chest physiotherapy is not contraindicated for the client with diabetes mellitus, rheumatoid arthritis, or emphysema, therefore answers B, C, and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. The client receiving radium linear accelerator radiation therapy for cancer
B. The client with a radium implant for vaginal cancer
C. The client who has just been administered radioactive isotopes for cancer
D. The client who returned from placement of iridium seeds for prostate cancer
The pregnant nurse should not be assigned to any client with radioactivity present. The client receiving linear accelerator therapy travels to the radium department for therapy, and the radiation stays in the department. Thus, the client is not radioactive. The client in answer B poses a risk to the pregnant client, so answer B is incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because the client is radioactive in very small doses. For approximately 72 hours, the client should dispose of urine and feces in special containers and use plastic spoons and forks. The client in answer D is also radioactive in small amounts, especially upon return from the procedure, so answer D is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
Total Volume / Time x Drip Factor = 1000 mL / 24 hours x 15drops/mL = 625 drops/hour
625drops/hour x 1hour/60minutes = 10.4166667 = 10 drops/minute (rounded off to a whole number)
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Vancomycin (Vancocin) IV
B. Ampicillin (Omnipen) PO
C. Ceftriazone (Rocephin) IM
D. Cefotaxime sodium (Claforan)
Vancomycin IV would be the antibiotic of choice for resistant strands of meningitis. The client would need the medication to work quickly, making Answers B and C incorrect. Answer D is an antibiotic used for meningitis, but would not be the one of choice for resistant strains of meningitis, so it is wrong.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Mole 2 mm in diameter on the chest
B. Tenting of the skin on the forearms
C. Patches of vitiligo around both eyes
D. Scattered brown macules on the face
Tenting of the skin on younger clients may indicate dehydration and the need for oral or IV fluid administration. The other data will be recorded but do not require any rapid interventions.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Ribavirin
B. Respigam
C. Sandimmune
D. Synagis
The only effective treatment of bronchiolitis (respiratory synctial virus) is ribavirin. Answers B and D are incorrect because they are used prophylactically, not as a treatment for bronchiolitis. Sandimmune, an immunosuppressive drug, is not used for treating bronchiolitis; therefore, Answer C is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Take at bedtime
B. Take the medication with juice
C. Report changes in appetite
D. Avoid sunshine while taking the medication
Lugol’s solution is a soluble solution of potassium iodine and should be given with juice because it is bitter to taste. In answer A the medication can be taken at another time, so it is incorrect. Reporting changes in appetite is unnecessary, so answer C is incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because it is also unnecessary.
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