Demo Quiz
Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Celestone
B. Dopamine
C. Serotonin
D. Anti-diuretic hormone
The neurotransmitter dopamine is missing in clients with Parkinson’s disease. Most of the treatment involves replacement of this drug. Answer A is a steroid. Answer C is a neurotransmitter not missing in Parkinson’s disease, and Answer D is secreted by the pituitary gland not related to the stated diagnosis; therefore Answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Kernig’s sign
B. Brown-Sequard’s syndrome
C. Brudsinski’s sign
D. Doll’s eye reflex
A positive result would be indicated by pain in the hamstring when the actions in the stem are done. Answers B and D do not relate to meningitis. Brudsinski’s sign, Answer C, is elicited by attempting to flex the patients’ head causing severe pain if positive, so this is incorrect. Both Kernig’s and Brudsinski’s signs are indications of meningeal irritation found in meningitis.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Share hats and caps
B. Wear training pants
C. Engage in imitative play
D. Have hand-to-mouth contact
Enterobiasis is most common in young children because of frequent hand-to-mouth contact. Answer A is incorrect because sharing hats and caps contributes to the spread of pediculosis capitis. Wearing training pants and playing with imitative toys is not associated with enterobiasis; therefore, Answers B and C are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Vancomycin (Vancocin) IV
B. Ampicillin (Omnipen) PO
C. Ceftriazone (Rocephin) IM
D. Cefotaxime sodium (Claforan)
Vancomycin IV would be the antibiotic of choice for resistant strands of meningitis. The client would need the medication to work quickly, making Answers B and C incorrect. Answer D is an antibiotic used for meningitis, but would not be the one of choice for resistant strains of meningitis, so it is wrong.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
When assessing arterial blood gases, the nurse should look at the pH. In this case, the pH is low. After assessing the pH, the nurse should look at the PaCO2. In this case, the PaCO2 is elevated. Finally, look at the HCO3. In this question, the HCO3 is elevated. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect findings because they are not consistent with the lab values given in the question.
The Correct Answer is Option C
Partial seizures usually originate in the temporal lobe, making Answers A, B, and D incorrect because partial seizures do not usually occur in the other lobes.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Wear protective clothing and sunglasses when she is outside
B. Avoid using dietary supplements and over the counter medications
C. Make sure that she consumes adequate fluids each day
D. Increase her intake of iron, including liver and lentils
Nardil, an MAOI, should not be used with dietary supplements or over the counter medications. Answer A refers to care of the client receiving antipsychotic medication; therefore, it is incorrect. Answer C refers to the client taking lithium; therefore, it is incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because liver is high in tyramine and should be avoided by the client taking Nardil.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Take half the dose to control the problem
B. Take cough medication to control the problem
C. Stop the medication
D. Report the problem to the doctor
A hacking cough is a common side effect and should be reported to the doctor. The client should not be told to half the dose because this can result in an elevated blood pressure, so answer A is incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because taking a cough medication will mask the symptom of a possible allergic reaction. Answer C is incorrect because, although the client stops taking the medication, this answer states that the client can report the finding to the doctor at the time of the scheduled visit. She should report this finding immediately.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Excitability
B. Tremors
C. Heart rate 150
D. Nausea
Adverse effects of epinephrine include hypertension and tachycardia. Answers A, B, and D are expected side effects of racemic epinephrine.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Gemcitabine (Gemzar)
B. Gefitinib (Iressa)
C. Cabergoline (Dostinex)
D. Ganciclovir (Cytovene)
Dostinex is used to shrink the prolactin-based tumor. Answers A and B are antineoplastic drugs. Answer D is an antiviral medication.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Call the doctor
B. Stop the IV infusion of Vancomycin
C. Administer Benadryl as ordered
D. Take the vital signs
All are important however, the initial step is to stop the cause of the allergy.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Assess for allergy to iodine
B. Check pulses proximal to the site
C. Assess the urinary output
D. Check to ensure that the client has a consent form signed
The dye used in the procedure can cause a decrease in renal function. The client’s renal function should be assessed and changes reported to the doctor immediately. Answer A is incorrect because the client’s allergies should be checked prior to the procedure, not after the procedure. The femoral artery is commonly used as the site for a catheterization. Answer B is incorrect because the pulses should be checked distal to the site. Answer D is incorrect because the permit should be signed prior to the procedure.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Insulin
B. Inderal (propanolol)
C. Lasix (furosemide)
D. Valium (diazepam)
Lasix is a non–potassium-sparing diuretic. This drug can potentiate fluid volume deficit. Answer A is incorrect because insulin will force fluid back into the cell and will not increase fluid volume deficit. Answer B is incorrect because Inderal (propanolol) is a beta-blocker used for the treatment of hypertension and cardiac disease. Inderal does not potentiate diuresis. Answer D is incorrect because Valium (diazepam) is a phenothiazine used as an anti-anxiety medication. This drug does not potentiate fluid volume deficit.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Checking the client’s blood sugar
B. Administering intravenous dextrose
C. Intubation and ventilator support
D. Administering regular insulin
The client has symptoms of insulin shock and the first step is to check the client’s blood sugar. If indicated, the client should be treated with intravenous dextrose. Answer B is wrong because it is not the first step the nurse should take. Answer C is wrong because it does not apply to the client’s symptoms. Answer D is wrong because it would be used for diabetic ketoacidosis, not insulin shock.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Hard palate
B. Palms of the hands
C. Sclera
D. Soles of the feet
Jaundice in the dark-skinned client is best assessed by examining the hard palate. Answers B and D are incorrect because the palms and soles might take on a yellowish appearance if calluses are present. Answer C is incorrect because normal deposits of fat can produce a yellowish appearance of the sclera.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
B. Podophyllin
C. AZT (Retrovir)
D. Isoniazid (Lanzid)
Acyclovir is used to treat genital herpes. Answer B is incorrect because Podophyllin is used to treat condyloma acuminata (venereal warts). Answer C is incorrect because AZT (Retrovir) is used to prevent HIV transmission from mother to baby. Answer D is incorrect because isoniazid is used to treat tuberculosis, not herpes.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Five minutes
B. Thirty minutes
C. Ninety minutes
D. Four hours
NPH insulin onset is 90–120 minutes. Answer A is incorrect because Novalog insulin onset is 5–10 minutes. B is incorrect because regular insulin onset is 15–30 minutes. D is incorrect and is not associated with the onset of any insulin.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. “I can soak the ear mold in mild soap and water to clean it.”
B. “I will need to keep an extra supply of batteries on hand.”
C. “I need to adjust the volume to the lowest setting that permits hearing.”
D. “I can use a toothpick to clean debris from the hole of the hearing aid.”
The client should avoid excessive wetting of the ear mold; therefore, the client needs further teaching. Answers B, C, and D indicate that the client understands the nurse’s teaching, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. The nurse offers extra blankets.
B. The nurse places a tracheostomy tube at the bedside.
C. The nurse insists that the client refrain from talking.
D. The nurse administers pain medication every four hours.
The thyroid is located anterior to the trachea; therefore, laryngeal stridor and airway obstruction is a risk following a thyroidectomy. Answer A is incorrect because this action is not necessary. The need for extra blankets is associated with hypothyroidism, but is not directly associated with thyroid surgery. Answer C is incorrect because the client can talk. Answer D is incorrect because pain medication should be offered as needed, not every four hours.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. A 42-year-old with dyspnea and chest asymmetry
B. A 17-year-old with a fractured arm
C. A 4-year-old with facial lacerations
D. A 30-year-old with blunt abdominal trauma
Following the ABCDs of basic emergency care, the client with dyspnea and asymmetrical chest should be cared for first because these symptoms are associated with flail chest. Answer D is incorrect because he should be cared for second because of the likelihood of organ damage and bleeding. Answer B is incorrect because he should be cared for after the client with abdominal trauma. Answer C is incorrect because he should receive care last because his injuries are less severe.
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