Demo Quiz
Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Inserting a Foley catheter
B. Discontinuing a nasogastric tube
C. Obtaining a sputum specimen
D. Starting a blood transfusion
The LPN can be assigned to insert Foley and French urinary catheters, discontinue Levin and gavage gastric tubes, and obtain all types of specimens. Administering a blood transfusion is outside the scope of practice of an LPN. Another practice outside of an LPN's scope is administering a controlled medication such as Morphine. LPNs can witness the commencement of blood transfusion and witness the administration of controlled medications.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Test the corneal reflexes.
B. Test the 6 cardinal positions of gaze.
C. Test visual acuity, using a Snellen eye chart.
D. Test sensory function by asking the client to close the eyes and then lightly touching the forehead, cheeks, and chin.
Testing the 6 cardinal positions of gaze (diagnostic positions test) is done to assess for muscle weakness in the eyes. The client is asked to hold the head steady, and then to follow the movement of an object through the positions of gaze. The client should follow the object in a parallel manner with the 2 eyes. A Snellen eye chart assesses visual acuity and cranial nerve II (optic). Testing sensory function by having the client close his or her eyes and then lightly touching areas of the face and testing the corneal reflexes assess cranial nerve V (trigeminal).
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Autograft
B. Isograft
C. Allograft
D. Xenograft
Xenografts are taken from animal sources. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they originate from human donors.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Culture
B. VDRL
C. RPR
D. FTA-ABS
The fluorescent treponemal antibody test (FTA-ABS) is most diagnostic for syphilis. Answer A is incorrect because a culture of the discharge is used to diagnose gonorrhea, not syphilis. Answers B and C are incorrect because they are screening tests and are not as diagnostic as the FTA-ABS is.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Serum phosphorus of 3.0 mg/dL
B. Alkaline phosphatase of 70 units/L
C. Serum calcium 16.0 mg/dL
D. Aldolase 3.5 units/dL
Serum calcium levels rise with metastatic cancer of the bone. Normal calcium is 9.0 mg/dL–10.5 mg/dL. Answers A and D are incorrect because these are within normal limits and not related to bone metastasis. Normal phosphorus level is 3.0–4.5 mg/dL and normal aldolase level is 3.0–8.2 units/dL. Alkaline phosphatase is elevated in bone metastasis and Answer B is within the normal of 30–120 units/L, so it is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Warming the intravenous fluids
B. Determining whether the client can take oral fluids
C. Checking for the strength of pedal pulses
D. Obtaining the specific gravity of the urine
Warming the intravenous fluid helps to prevent further stress on the vascular system. Thirst is a sign of hypovolemia; however, oral fluids alone will not meet the fluid needs of the client in hypovolemic shock, so answer B is incorrect. Answers C and D are wrong because they can be used for baseline information but will not help stabilize the client.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Increase her intake of milk and dairy products.
B. Avoid taking bubble baths
C. Use underwear made from nylon
D. Drink orange juice for breakfast
The nurse should tell the client to avoid tub baths as well as bubble baths. The client should be instructed to wear cotton underwear and to avoid tight-fitting clothing such as jeans. Answers A, C, and D do not decrease the incidence of cystitis; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Instruct the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver
B. Elevate the tubing above the client’s chest level
C. Decrease the amount of suction being applied
D. Form a water seal and obtain a new connector
The nurse should form a water seal, remove the contaminated end, and insert a new sterile connector. The Valsalva maneuver is used when the chest tube is being removed, therefore Answer A is incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because the chest drainage system is maintained below the client’s chest level. Answer C is incorrect because the nurse cannot alter the amount of suction being applied without a doctor’s order.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Call the doctor
B. Stop the IV infusion of Vancomycin
C. Administer Benadryl as ordered
D. Take the vital signs
All are important however, the initial step is to stop the cause of the allergy.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Vancomycin (Vancocin) IV
B. Ampicillin (Omnipen) PO
C. Ceftriazone (Rocephin) IM
D. Cefotaxime sodium (Claforan)
Vancomycin IV would be the antibiotic of choice for resistant strands of meningitis. The client would need the medication to work quickly, making Answers B and C incorrect. Answer D is an antibiotic used for meningitis, but would not be the one of choice for resistant strains of meningitis, so it is wrong.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Rebound tenderness
B. Rovsing’s sign
C. Turner’s sign
D. Ascites
Rebound tenderness indicates peritoneal irritation. The client experiences increased pain when the examiner releases pressure in a positive result of this assessment technique. Answers B and C are exhibited by other assessment measures, so they are incorrect. Answer D is a condition of excessive peritoneal fluid in the abdominal cavity associated with liver disorders.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Private room or cohort client
B. Personal respiratory protection device
C. Private room with negative airflow pressure
D. Mask worn by staff when the client needs to leave the room
Meningitis is transmitted by droplet infection. Precautions for this disease include a private room or cohort client and the use of a standard precaution mask. Private negative airflow pressure rooms and personal respiratory protection devices are required for clients with airborne diseases such as tuberculosis. When appropriate, a mask must be worn by the client and not the staff when the client leaves the room.
The Correct Answer is Option B
The thyroid is located anterior to the trachea; therefore, laryngeal stridor and airway obstruction is a risk following a thyroidectomy. Answer A is incorrect because this action is not necessary. The need for extra blankets is associated with hypothyroidism, but is not directly associated with thyroid surgery. Answer C is incorrect because the client can talk. Answer D is incorrect because pain medication should be offered as needed, not every four hours.
The Correct Answer is Option C
Change 1 g to milligrams, knowing that 1000 mg =1 g.
Also, when converting from grams to milligrams (larger to smaller), move the decimal point three places to the right: 1 g = 1000 mg.
Next, use the formula for calculating the correct dose.
Formula: Desired / Available x Tablet = 1000 mg / 500 mg = 2 tablets
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Assess for allergy to iodine
B. Check pulses proximal to the site
C. Assess the urinary output
D. Check to ensure that the client has a consent form signed
The dye used in the procedure can cause a decrease in renal function. The client’s renal function should be assessed and changes reported to the doctor immediately. Answer A is incorrect because the client’s allergies should be checked prior to the procedure, not after the procedure. The femoral artery is commonly used as the site for a catheterization. Answer B is incorrect because the pulses should be checked distal to the site. Answer D is incorrect because the permit should be signed prior to the procedure.
The Correct Answer is Option A, Option B, Option C
A. CVAD dressing
B. TPN changing
C. VAC dressing
D. drainage of urinary catheter
Answer: A, B, C
Procedures 1,2,3 require a high level of ANTT. CVAD dressing and TPN change are crucial procedures as this goes to the central vein. VAC dressing is a complex dressing.
Drainage of urinary catheterization requires PPE to protect a health practitioner from splashes, but not asepsis. Insertion of urinary catheter
The Correct Answer is Option B
Volume of water to add (mL) = total volume of formula on hand (mL) – total volume of formula on hand (mL)
Diluted strength
mL water = (300mL / 2/3) – 300mL = (300mL x 3) / (1x2) – 300mL = 450mL – 300mL = 150mL
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Have one of the client’s family members interpret.
B. Have the Spanish-speaking triage receptionist interpret.
C. Page an interpreter from the hospital’s interpreter services.
D. Obtain a Spanish-English dictionary and attempt to triage the client.
The best action is to have a professional hospital-based interpreter translate for the client. English-speaking family members may not appropriately understand what is asked of them and may paraphrase what the client is actually saying. Also, client confidentiality, as well as accurate information, may be compromised when a family member or a non–health care provider acts as an interpreter.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Continue the collection as ordered by the physician
B. Discard the collected urine, obtain a new bottle, and begin the collection again
C. Record the information in the client’s chart and continue the collection
D. Extend the collection time to replace the last voiding
Failure to collect all urine voided in the 24-hour period invalidates specimen results; therefore, the nurse should obtain a new collection bottle, discard the collected urine, and begin the collection again. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they are improper ways of obtaining a 24-hour urine specimen.
The Correct Answer is Option A
Total Volume / Time x Drip Factor = 1000 mL / 24 hours x 15drops/mL = 625 drops/hour
625drops/hour x 1hour/60minutes = 10.4166667 = 10 drops/minute (rounded off to a whole number)
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